Loan scenario: IN, $181,000, 755, 95% LTV, Refinance, full, OO
Property type: SF
Loan purpose: Refinance
95% LTV refi. Client took cash out in 2007 then redid the first through HARP 2 last year while subordinating the second. Paid the second down but now wants to combine both loans into a new first. Will anyone go over 80% on this? The last cash out taken was in 2007 so will it still be considered a 'cash out refi' restricted to 80% LTV?
Thanks in advance for any thoughts and/or ideas.
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